Diagnostic Test with Answers and Explanations

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Answers and Explanations

Analytical Writing: Sections 1 and 2

Because grading the essay is subjective, we’ve chosen not to include any “graded” essays here. Your best bet is to have someone you trust, such as your personal tutor, read your essays and give you an honest critique. Make the grading criteria mentioned in Chapter 6, “GMAT Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA),” available to whomever grades your essays. If you plan on grading your own essays, review the grading criteria and be as honest as possible regarding the structure, development, organization, technique, and appropriateness of your writing. Focus on your weak areas and continue to practice to improve your writing skills.

Quantitative—Section 3

1. The correct answer is C. The first step in solving this problem is to determine how old Susan is now. You are given that Susan was 31 years old 5 years ago, so her current age is 31 + 5, or 36. Susan is 36 now; x years ago, she was x years younger than she is now, so her age was 36 - x.

2. The correct answer is E. You are given that Kendra works 5 days per week and earns d dollars per day. This means that Kendra earns 5 times d, or 5 d dollars per week. To calculate the amount she would earn in w weeks, multiply the amount that she earns in one week, 5 d, by w. Kendra earns 5 dw each week.

3. The correct answer is B. To solve this problem, you must remember that the area of a rectangle is found by multiplying the length by the width. You are given that the area of the entire yard is 2,800 square feet. You are also given that the homeowner wants to fence three sides of his yard and leave 70 feet unfenced, which means that one side of the yard must equal 70 feet. Set either the length or the width equal to 70, and set the other side equal to x. The area of the rectangular portion of the yard is 70 x = 2,800 feet. Solve for x as follows:

   x = 2,800 ÷ 70

   x = 40

   Now you know the length and the width: 40 and 70. Because the homeowner wants to leave one 70-foot side unfenced, you can add the lengths of the three remaining sides to find the amount of fencing that he needs: 40 + 40 + 70, or 150 feet.

4. The correct answer is E. An integer is any positive or negative whole number, including 0. Because you are given that r times s does not equal 0, you know that neither r nor s is 0. However, you do not know whether either r or s is an integer; one or the other could be a fraction. Therefore, it is possible that 3r - 2s is a fraction, and statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question, because it does not provide any information about t. Likewise, both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. The correct answer is D. To correctly answer this question, you must know something about scientific notation. The number 3,021 is equivalent to 3.021 × 10³, because the decimal point is moved three places to the right. The number 302,100 is equivalent to 3.021 × 10⁵, because the decimal point is moved five places to the right. Therefore, because you are given that n is a positive integer, n must be equal to 4, and statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question. Likewise, if p is between 10³ and 10⁵, and you are given that n is a positive integer, n must be equal to 4 and statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

6. The correct answer is C. If x is even, it could be equal to 2, which is a prime number. On the other hand, it could be equal to any other even number, none of which are prime numbers. Statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. If x is between 2 and 19, it could be 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, or 17, all of which are prime numbers. On the other hand, it could be 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, 15, or 16, none of which are prime numbers. Statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Because no even prime numbers exist between 2 and 19, both statements together are sufficient to answer the question.

7. The correct answer is C. To solve this problem, first calculate 25 percent of 400. You can determine it logically, by recognizing that 50 percent of 400 is 200, and 50 percent of 200 is 100. Also, if you know that 25 percent is equivalent to 1/4, you can easily determine that 25 percent of 400 is 100. You now know that 100 is 40 percent of some number, x. Set up a proportion as follows:

   100 is to x as 40 percent is to 100 percent.

   cross multiply and solve for x.

   40x = 10,000

   x = 250

8. The correct answer is D. To solve this problem, first calculate the total sales during each week. The total sales revenue from bicycles during the first week was 10(250), or $2,500.00. During the second week, total sales revenue was 15(18), or $2,700. Therefore, the revenue from weekly sales of the bicycles increased by $200 during the second week.

9. The correct answer is B. To solve this problem, you must remember that the formula for the circumference of a circle is πd. You are given that the diameter is 10, so the circumference is 10π. If you calculated the area of the circle instead (πr²), you would have gotten answer choice D.

10. The correct answer is E. Some information about the value of the integers themselves is required to determine the value of their sum. In statement (1), only the number of integers in the list (n) is given, with no clues as to the identity of the integers themselves; therefore, statement (1) alone is not sufficient. Likewise, in statement (2), only information about the number of integers in the list is given, with no clues as to the identity of the integers themselves; therefore, statement (2) alone is not sufficient. When both statements are taken together, the information is still about the number of integers and not the integers themselves; both statements together are still not sufficient.

11. The correct answer is C. Statement (1) alone is not sufficient because it does not provide information about commissioners T and U. Statement (2) alone is not sufficient because it only gives information about T and U. However, the two statements together show that no meeting is possible between the four commissioners.

12. The correct answer is B. Because statement (1) only provides information regarding the length of the art gallery opening, and provides no information regarding the number and type of oil paintings on display at the gallery opening, it is not sufficient to answer the question. However, using the information in statement (2) along with the information given in the question, you can determine the number of different oil paintings at the gallery opening as follows:

    The ratio of painters to paintings is 1:5, and the number of painters is 13.

    So, for every painter, there were 5 paintings, which means that there were 65 paintings.

13. The correct answer is E. To solve this problem, let r stand for the number of brand R pens that Franco purchased. Because he purchased a total of 12 boxes of pens, the number of brand S pens that he purchased must be equivalent to 12 - r. Set up an equation as follows, accounting for the price per box of each brand of pen, and solve for r:

    3.3r + 2(12 - r) = 37

    3.3r + 24 - 2 r = 37

    3.3r - 2 r = 13

    1.3r = 13

    r = 10

14. The correct answer is A. If the length and the width of the patio floor are l and w, respectively, the new length and width are 1.30 l and 1.30 w, respectively. Remember that you are increasing each of the dimensions by 30 percent, or 0.30. Solve for the percent increase, as follows:

    (1.3 l)(1.3 w) = 1.69 lw. This means that the percent increase in area is 69%, because 1.69 is 0.69 greater than 1, and 0.69 is the decimal equivalent of 69%.

15. The correct answer is E. The first step in solving this problem is to determine the amount of money that Amanda earned in commissions during the week. Because her base salary is $480, she must have earned $760 - $480, or $280 in commissions that week, which means that $280 is 5% (0.05) of her total sales over $1,000 for the week. Set up the following equations and solve for her total sales (x):

    280 = 0.05(x - 1,000)

    280 = 0.05x - 50

    330 = 0.05x

    6,600 = x

16. The correct answer is D. When you cross-multiply the equation in statement (1) you get xy = 50, which means that statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question. Likewise, when you solve for x in statement (2), you find that x = 5, and when you solve for y in statement (2), you find that y = 10; therefore, statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

17. The correct answer is D. Statement (1) can be expressed as x = t², where t is any nonzero integer. In this case, the square root of x equals the square root of t², which is t or -t, depending on whether t is positive or negative, respectively. In either case, the square root of x is an integer. Therefore, statement (1) alone is sufficient. In statement (2), the square of an integer must also be an integer; both statements alone are sufficient to answer the question.

18. The correct answer is A. To solve this problem, set the total number of books sold at the bookstore today to n. Statement (1) can be written as 200 = 2 n - 20. You can solve this equation for n, and statement (1) alone is sufficient. From statement (2) alone, you can determine only that the number of books sold yesterday was n + 90. Because the number sold yesterday is unknown, n cannot be determined, and statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

19. The correct answer is D. The first step in solving this problem is to solve for b in the second equation. You are given that 3 b = 9, which means that b = 3. Now, substitute 3 for b in the first equation and solve for a, as follows:

    a² = 4(3)²

    a² = 36

    a = 6

    When you substitute 3 for b and 36 for a² in the third equation and solve, the result is 39.

20. The correct answer is E. The first step in solving this problem is to convert to a decimal. Do this by dividing the numerator (4) by the denominator (5): 4 ÷ 5 = 0.8. Now, subtract 0.8 from 0.825 to get 0.025.

21. The correct answer is A. The average is equal to the total cost of the frames divided by the total number of frames. The total number of frames is x + y, and their total cost is 6x + 13y dollars. Therefore, the average cost per frame is as follows:

    

22. The correct answer is B. Because you know that p + q = r, you also know that q = r - p. Statement (1) alone is not sufficient because you are not given any information about r. On the other hand, statement (2) alone is sufficient because r - p = −31, and you know that r – p = q.

23. The correct answer is C. You can deduce from statement (1) that R is a two-digit number. If x and y are the digits of R, statement (1) can be expressed as x = y + 2 and x + y = 10. When you substitute y + 2 for x in the second equation, you find that y = 4. Therefore, R could be either 46 or 64, and statement (1) alone is not sufficient. Statement (2) alone is not sufficient because it only tells you that R is less than 50. However, both statements together provide you with the answer of 46.

24. The correct answer is D. To solve this problem, first find the units, or “ones,” digit of each of the separate elements of the expression, as follows:

    The units digit of (11)⁴ is 1, because 1 × 1 × 1 × 1 = 1.

    The units digit of (22)³ is 8, because 2 × 2 × 2 = 8.

    The units digit of (36)² is 6, because 6 × 6 = 36, and the units digit of 36 is 6.

    Therefore, the units digit of (11)⁴(22)³(36)² is 8, because 1 × 8 × 6 = 48, and the units digit of 48 is 8.

25. The correct answer is C. The formula for the area of a triangle is , where b is the base and h is the height. You are given the height as , but you must apply the Pythagorean theorem to find the base. The Pythagorean theorem states that a² + b² = c², where c is the hypotenuse. The hypotenuse is equal to x, so the hypotenuse squared is equal to x², which is given as 4. This means that x must equal 2 and, therefore, (the height) must equal 1. You can now solve for b using the Pythagorean theorem as follows:

    1 ² + b² = 4

    b² = 4 - 1

    b² = 3

    

    Calculate the area of the triangle as follows:

    

26. The correct answer is A. If a = 0, then a² = 0, and ab = 0, so a² + ab = 0. Therefore, statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question. If b = 0, then ab = 0, but you cannot determine the value of a², so statement (2) is not sufficient to answer the question.

27. The correct answer is C. An isosceles triangle has two congruent sides, and the angles opposite those sides are also congruent. In any triangle, the total of all three interior angles is 180 degrees. Because you do not know which sides are congruent, neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question; angle B could be either 80° or 50°. However, if you take both statements together, you know that angle B must equal 50°, because 180° - 80° - 50° = 50°.

28. The correct answer is E. Statement (1) alone is not sufficient because the amount of the gross revenues during the first week is unknown. Likewise, statement (2) alone is not sufficient because no information is given about the gross revenues in the second week. Statements (1) and (2) together are not sufficient because you need information about the gross revenues of the first and third weeks to solve the problem.

29. The correct answer is B. To solve this problem, set Jill’s present weight to x and set her brother’s weight to y. According to information in the problem, x + y = 343. The problem also states that if Jill loses 7 pounds (x - 7), she will weigh half as much as her brother . This can be expressed mathematically as . You now have a system of equations that must be solved. The most direct method of determining Jill’s weight now is to solve the first equation for y to get y = 343 - x. Now, substitute that value for y in the second equation and solve for x, as follows:

    

    2(x - 7) = 343 - x

    2x - 14 = 343 - x

    3x = 357

    x = 119

30. The correct answer is A. To solve this problem, you should first square the value(x + y), using the FOIL method as follows:

    (x + y)(x + y) =

    First terms: (x)(x) = x²

    Outside terms: (x)(y) = xy

    Inside terms: (x)(y) = xy

    Last terms:(y)(y) = y²

    Now add the terms to get x² + xy + xy + y², which simplifies to x² + 2xy + y².

    Next, subtract 2xy from that value, as the problem indicates:

    x² + 2xy + y² - 2xy = x² + y²

31. The correct answer is D. To solve, first convert to 0.40, its decimal equivalent. Then consider the exponent, as follows:

    0.40⁴ = (0.40) (0.40) (0.40) (0.40) = 0.0256

    You could also simply have calculated 4⁴ and moved the decimal point accordingly.

32. The correct answer is C. If you know that x⁶ = 729, you also know that x = . Because x is raised to an even power, it could be either positive or negative; therefore, statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. If x⁵ < x⁴, then x must be any negative number, and statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question. However, if you take both statements together, you know that x must be the negative sixth root of 729. Therefore, both statements together are sufficient to answer the question.

33. The correct answer is A. To solve this problem, set the number of balloons that Kenny has to x. According to statement (1), if Kenny had x - 3 balloons, the number of balloons would be equivalent to . You can set up an equation and solve for x, so statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question. However, statement (2) provides no information regarding the total number of balloons, only that Kenny has twice as many blue balloons as he has red balloons. Because you don’t know how many red balloons Kenny has, statement (2) is not sufficient to answer the question.

34. The correct answer is D. The easiest way to solve this problem is to pick a number for n, based on the information given in the question. You know that 7 is a prime number greater than 3, so substitute 7 for n in the answer choices until the result is a prime number, as follows:

    Answer choice A: 7² = 49, which is not a prime number.

    Answer choice B: , which is not a prime number.

    Answer choice C: 3(7) = 21, which is not a prime number.

    Answer choice D: 7 - 6 = 1, which is a prime number, so n - 6 could be a prime number and this is the correct answer.

35. The correct answer is E. To solve this problem, calculate the amount of both a 15 percent tip and a 20 percent tip. The total amount paid for the meal will be between $42 + 15% of $42 and $42 + 20% of $42:

    $42 × 1.15 = $48.30

    $42 × 1.20 = $50.40

    The only answer choice that includes values between $48.30 and $50.40 is answer choice E.

36. The correct answer is D. To solve this problem, you must remember that a cube has 12 equivalent edges. So, if the sum of the lengths of the edges is 48, the length of each edge must be 48 ÷ 12, or 4. The volume of a cube is calculated by “cubing” the length of a side; in other words, raise the length of a side to the third power. Therefore, the volume of this cube is 4³, or 4 × 4 × 4, which is 64.

37. The correct answer is E. To answer this question, you need information about the distance between all four exits. Statement (1) alone does not give the distance from A to B or the distance from B to C. Similarly, statement (2) alone does not give the distance from B to C or C to D. Likewise, statements (1) and (2) together do not provide the distance between B and C, so neither statement is sufficient to answer the question.

Verbal—Section 4

1. The best answer is C. The passage focuses primarily on Mary Cassatt’s dedication to and support of both American and European art and artists. According to the passage, “Cassatt was a great practical supporter of the Impressionist movement as a whole… ” and “Throughout her life, Mary Cassatt continued to promote the works of artists from around the world, often acting as a role model for young American painters.” This information best supports answer choice C. The remaining answer choices are too narrow and do not reflect the main idea of the passage.

2. The best answer is A. Because the main idea of the passage is Mary Cassatt’s contribution to art and artists around the world, it makes sense that the author would characterize Cassatt as being focused on advancing the arts, both in her native country and abroad. Answer choices B and E directly contradict information presented in the passage, and answer choices C and D are not supported by information in the passage.

3. The best answer is B. While Mary Cassatt’s artistic versatility is discussed in the passage, there is no discussion of the specific brush strokes that she employed. The remaining answer choices are all mentioned specifically in the passage.

4. The best answer is E. While answer choice E might be a true statement, it is not relevant to the passage. The fact that lizards cool themselves by climbing onto vegetation has nothing to do with the fringe-toed lizard’s choice to search for insects under the intense heat; therefore, this selection would offer the least help in explaining the lizard’s actions. Each of the remaining answer choices provides a reason for the lizard’s choice to hunt under the hot desert sun: fewer predators, more insects available earlier in the day, less competition for food, and hotter temperatures inside the lizard’s burrow.

5. The best answer is A. This is a weaken question. Answer choice A weakens the conclusion of the argument by providing an alternate explanation for the similarity between the scenes in the two movies. In this instance, the alternate explanation that is offered is entirely plausible and would explain why the two scenes are so similar without blaming only the maker of the movie that came later in time for the similarity. Each of the other choices is irrelevant to the connection between the evidence presented and the stated conclusion.

6. The best answer is E. For this sentence to be correct, the two elements being compared in the sentence must be parallel. Therefore, the underlined portion should be “to the northern states” to parallel the movement “to the American South.”

7. The best answer is D. For this sentence to be correct, the two elements being compared in the sentence must be parallel. Therefore, the underlined portion should be “equivalent to the number of children enrolled in” to parallel the “number” of children being enrolled in soccer programs each year.

8. The best answer is C. As it is written, the sentence is a run-on sentence; the sentence contains two independent, but related, clauses that must be separated with some form of punctuation. Answer choice C is best because it is clear and correctly punctuated. Answer choice B is incorrect because it, too, is a run-on sentence. Answer choices D and E are awkward and contain misplaced modifiers.

9. The best answer is E. The correct answer, “one of whom,” properly identifies one specific choice among members of a group. In addition, whom is used as an object; in other words, an action (the singling out of the deaf speaker) is being performed on the pronoun whom. Who is the subject form of the pronoun—the one performing the action.

10. The best answer is C. The answer to this specific detail question can be found in the third paragraph, which states that “Earth’s mountain ranges were formed when continental plates collided, and the crust was compressed and forced upward.” The remaining answer choices are not supported by the passage.

11. The best answer is A. According to the passage, the theory that Africa and South America were once part of one large land mass is supported by evidence from the fossil record. The passage states that “Corresponding plant and animal fossils have been found along the matching coastlines of Africa and South America, even though those continents are now separated by the Atlantic Ocean.” Therefore, if data concerning the age and type of these fossils were found to be unreliable, the theory could be seriously undermined. Although the theory might also be undermined if it were found that the methods used to determine the movement of the continental plates could be improved upon, this finding would not have as serious an impact on the theory; therefore, answer choice C is not the best answer. This choice says nothing about the reliability or accuracy of the methods, only that they could be improved upon.

12. The best answer is B. According to the passage, the fossil evidence provides additional support for the theory of plate tectonics, which most likely means that, even without such evidence, researchers believe enough proof exists in the form of geologic phenomena such as earthquakes and volcanoes to promote plate tectonics as a viable theory. It is unlikely that the researchers would simply toss out the theory of plate tectonics, so answer choice A is incorrect. Likewise, the remaining answer choices are not supported by information in the passage.

13. The best answer is B. Although the sentence as it is written is not necessarily incorrect, it is awkward and wordy. By replacing the underlined portion with answer choice B, you create a succinct sentence that clearly conveys the intended idea. The remaining answer choices are awkward and wordy. Answer choice E also refers to a person, the leader, with the pronoun that instead of the correct pronoun who.

14. The best answer is B. This is an assumption question. Remember that an assumption is a piece of unstated evidence. If you negate B and say, “New behaviors that emerge in wolf populations over the course of a couple of decades are necessarily genetically predetermined,” you can see that this statement would directly contradict the conclusion of the stimulus argument, which is that the wolves’ behavior is evidence against genetically predetermined behavior. Because the negation of answer choice B conflicts with the conclusion of the stimulus argument, answer choice B, as originally stated, must be an important part of the argument. Negating any of the other answer choices results in a statement that is irrelevant to the argument, showing that each of the other choices is irrelevant to the argument and therefore not a suppressed premise.

15. The best answer is D. This is a flaw question. Remember that correlation does not prove causation. Simply finding two things together, in this case being in prison and a higher likelihood of mental illness, does not mean that one caused the other. In fact, based on the correlation given, it is just as likely that having a mental illness increases the likelihood that one will be incarcerated as that incarceration causes mental illness. While the other answer choices contain true statements, they fail to identify any flaw in the relationship between the evidence and the conclusion presented in the argument.

16. The best answer is D. This is an assumption question. The author of the argument must be assuming that public funds should be used to support literature, or nothing else in the argument would make any sense. If public funds should not be used to support literature, any discussion of what type of literature ought to be supported would be meaningless. The statements made in the other answer choices might be true, but they are not assumptions necessary to connect the stated evidence of the stimulus argument to its conclusion.

17. The best answer is E. In the sentence as it is written, the singular verb was incorrectly refers to the plural noun films. The singular verb was should be replaced with the plural verb were, as in answer choice E. Answer choices B and D are incorrect, in part, because they use the past tense verb form “would be” instead of the present tense verb form “will be.” Answer choice C is incorrect because it creates an incomplete sentence.

18. The best answer is D. The sentence as it is written incorrectly compares Beethoven’s music, which is a thing, to the “Ballad Babes,” who are people. Only answer choice D correctly compares Beethoven with the “Ballad Babes.”

19. The best answer is B. The passage discusses the course of events leading up to Lewis and Clark’s journey, and places particular emphasis on the purpose and results of this historically significant expedition. The remaining answer choices do not reflect the main idea or primary purpose of the passage.

20. The best answer is C. The answer to this specific detail question can be found in the first paragraph, which states “ …the corps of volunteers for North Western Discovery set off under the command of Meriwether Lewis and William Clark to find the fastest water route across North America.” According to the passage, the men encountered unfriendly Indian tribes, but Lewis and Clark were not hired to engage these tribes in battle; answer choice A is incorrect. Likewise, Lewis and Clark might have attempted to do the things mentioned in the remaining answer choices, but none of those choices was the reason for the men being hired.

21. The best answer is D. The passage states that “ …40-some men were to travel from there (St. Louis) to the Pacific Ocean in only the keelboat and two smaller boats, all of which were moved by sails, towropes, poles, or oars.” This information suggests that the trip would be very physically taxing and difficult, which best supports answer choice D. Answer choice A is incorrect because it contradicts information presented in the passage. The remaining answer choices are too general or beyond the scope of this passage.

22. The best answer is C. The word intrepid means “fearless and brave,” and is most likely used at this point in the passage to emphasize the courage that would be required of the explorers during their adventure. Neither the context of the passage nor the definition of intrepid support the remaining answer choices.

23. The best answer is B. This is an inference question. The only answer choice supported by the stimulus is B because it states that Theresa did something that was morally wrong. This is supported by the statement in the stimulus “ …she did not recognize the fact that it was a morally wrong act,… ” Answer choice A is incorrect because the stimulus also states that Theresa knew that her actions were illegal. Answer choice C is incorrect because the stimulus simply does not provide enough evidence to draw any conclusion about what is or is not never excused by the law. Likewise, answer choices D and E go far beyond the scope of the stimulus in discussing what could have happened or what might happen in the future.

24. The best answer is B. This is an assumption question. Only answer choice B provides the missing link between the stated evidence, that other theories predict behavior better than the Smith theory does, and the stated conclusion, that therefore, the Smith theory should be abandoned in favor of those theories. Answer choice A is incorrect because no evidence exists that the Smith theory led to predictions that proved to be false. The conclusion is supported even if the Smith theory did lead to some predictions that proved to be true, so long as the other theories’ predictions are more predictive. Answer choices C, D, and E are all irrelevant to the conclusion of the stimulus argument.

25. The best answer is B. For this sentence to be correct, the verb tenses must match. The verb predicts is in the present tense, which means that the verb form “would have failed” must be changed to the present tense: “will fail.” In addition, the past tense verb traveled should be changed to the present tense verb travel. The remaining answer choices use the incorrect verb tense and, in the case of answer choices D and E, also create an incomplete sentence.

26. The best answer is A. The sentence is best as written. It clearly and effectively conveys the intended meaning and is grammatically correct. The remaining answer choices are awkward and wordy.

27. The best answer is C. The sentence as it is written contains an ambiguous pronoun; it is unclear to whom or what the pronoun they is referring. You could assume that people is the correct antecedent, but the way the sentence is written suggests that studies is the antecedent, which doesn’t make sense. Answer choice B is incorrect for the same reason; in addition, it is logically unsound. Answer choices D and E are awkward and wordy.

28. The best answer is A. The sentence is best as written. It clearly and effectively conveys the intended meaning and is grammatically correct; you should place a comma after an introductory prepositional phrase. The remaining answer choices are either awkward and wordy or are punctuated incorrectly.

29. The best answer is C. Throughout the passage, the author discusses Theodore Roosevelt’s physical limitations and his numerous attempts to overcome these limitations. The passage states that “(Theodore Roosevelt) carried the fight to the enemy” and “His first fight was for health and bodily vigor.” These statements and others found elsewhere within the passage point to Roosevelt’s tenacity and stubbornness when it came to defending himself and overcoming problems caused by his poorly developed physique. The remaining answer choices are not supported by the passage.

30. The best answer is A. The third paragraph discusses Roosevelt’s continuous fight for strength, and states that his prime motivation for numerous trips to the Maine woods “ …was the obstinate determination to make himself physically fit.” Although this information also suggests that he was self-sufficient, the paragraph does not indicate that he was completely self-sufficient as a boy, so answer choice B is incorrect. The remaining answer choices are not supported by information in the third paragraph.

31. The best answer is B. The word discomfiture means “frustration or embarrassment,” and is used in the passage to describe how Roosevelt felt when he realized that either one of the two boys he encountered on his trip could beat him in a fight. By using the word discomfiture, the author implies that the reader should be concerned for Roosevelt’s well-being at the hands of these boys. Neither the context of the passage nor the definition of discomfiture supports the remaining answer choices.

32. The best answer is E. During its discussion of the roof-top gymnasium, the passage states that Roosevelt “ …knew that his father was right, and so he took up the drudgery of daily, monotonous exercise with bars and rings and weights.” This best supports answer choice E. Roosevelt was clearly not thrilled with the gymnasium, nor was he enthusiastic about it; answer choices A and C are incorrect. Answer choice B is simply not supported by the passage. While you might assume that Roosevelt was disappointed that his lack of strength did not allow him to utilize the gymnasium to its fullest extent, answer choice D is not supported by information in the passage.

33. The best answer is C. In the sentence as it is written, the conjunction and is not correct. It would be better to use a conjunction such as because or replace the conjunction with a semicolon to separate the two independent, but related, clauses, as in answer choice C. While answer choice D includes a semicolon, the sentence is awkwardly constructed.

34. The best answer is A. The sentence is best as written. It clearly and effectively conveys the intended meaning and is grammatically correct. The remaining answer choices are awkwardly constructed.

35. The best answer is E. In the original sentence, the conjunction and is unnecessary. Answer choice E correctly eliminates the conjunction and, while maintaining proper punctuation. The remaining answer choices are either awkward or create incomplete sentences.

36. The best answer is D. This is a paradox question. The fact that most employees of Company X want their company to be more powerful than Company Y would explain why the employees prefer a situation where their company is ahead of Company Y in terms of gross revenues. Answer choice A is outside the scope of the stimulus because no information is presented on the growth rate of either company. Answer choice B is outside the scope of the stimulus because even if employees of Company X do want their gross revenues to be higher than $120 million, they would prefer the scenario where the revenues are already at $120 million than the scenario where the revenues are only $100 million. Answer choice C is irrelevant because it would not explain why employees would choose one scenario over the other. Answer choice E is irrelevant because the scenarios are based on gross revenues, not quality.

37. The best answer is D. The finding that X causes cancer in rabbits is the motivation for the proposed course of action: banning the use of X. Answer choice A is not correct because the conclusion of the physician’s argument is that X should be banned not to save rabbits, but to save humans from a similar fate. Answer choice B is incorrect because the physician does not assert or imply that cancer in lab rabbits is a benefit to anyone. Answer choices C and E are incorrect because the claim that similar research will never be done on humans is not actually supported. In fact, the physician uses the word probably in the statement as a way to avoid having to offer conclusive support.

38. The best answer is E. This is an inference question. The only answer choice that includes something that the reader can safely infer is that Carrie feels that wives should have been mentioned in the seminar title because a good portion of the discussion was devoted to wives. Answer choice A is incorrect because it is an exaggeration of Carrie’s position. Answer choice B is incorrect because it is not supported by any information in the stimulus. Just because Alan believes that the two roles, husband and wife, are parts of the same relationship, does not mean that he sees no distinction or difference between the roles. Answer choices C and D are both irrelevant to the stimulus because they go far beyond the scope of the evidence presented.

39. The best answer is C. This is an assumption question. If frustration is mutually exclusive of either pity or gratitude, the conclusion, that frustration in response to insults is unreasonable, is properly drawn. Each of the other answer choices is irrelevant to the conclusion.

40. The best answer is B. The sentence lists three elements that are separated by commas. To maintain parallel construction, “took” should be replaced with “taking.”

41. The best answer is A. The sentence is best as written. It clearly and effectively conveys the intended meaning and is grammatically correct. In answer choice D, the phrase “compared with” suggests a comparison between obesity and a certain time in history, which doesn’t make sense.